HH: There is no grammatical basis for "till" that I can see. Maybe that
is why modern translations do not interpret it that way. In Hebrew the
waw consecutive with the second verb normally indicates an action that
follows the action of the first verb. The LXX has EPEIDH when the KJV
has "till," but EPEIDH means "when" or "after." So it agrees with the
modern translations, as does the Hebrew:
NRSV: Ex. 34:33 When Moses had finished speaking with them, he put a
veil on his face;
HH: This does not have to be confusing.
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