... That the
spelling may have been updated (a suggestion with which you "have no
problem") suggests two things: 1) that Hebrew was spoken or used after
the exile in the form to which the spelling was updated -- it makes little
sense that they updated the spelling to reflect some never existing form,
if so, why update? 2) there may have been developments in Hebrew from
the stage present in the inscriptional pre-exilic material, and the stage
represented in the Torah -- such as sound changes, as well as other
types.
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