... I'm not saying these wereBut they could have been different dialects of the same language at the same time. Or for that matter, since we are mostly talking about matres lectionis, they could just be different spelling conventions for the same language at the same time. I would have no problem with a suggestion that the spelling of the Torah was updated to some extent after the exile. But changing spelling conventions is not the same as rewriting in a different language or form of language. There is simply not the evidence that the text of the Torah was changed in any more than spelling conventions after the exile.
"different languages." But they weren't the same language at the
same point in time either. And since here Biblical Hebrew is defined as
the consonantal text this places the text as post-exilic.
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.