Dr. Peter Kirk wrote:
>>> True, but we are almost certain that phi was an aspirated plosive, at
least in classical times - perhaps not quite so certain for LXX times. <<<
Would you mind clarifying this for me? Are you saying that you do not necessarily agree with Dr. Hoffman that the LXX's "phi" in Pinchas/Phineas represented a Hebrew pronunciation which differed from the later Massoretic pronunciation?
You're saying that the phi might have been an aspirated plosive ( a "p" rather than an "f" ) when the LXX was written?
the voiceless
fricatives are mainly post-1st century [CE]. ... For the voiceless consonants (φ, θ, χ),
the typical "Erasmian" soft pronunciations of φεῖ, θη̃τα and χεῖ [phi, theta, chi], common in academic circles today, were taken
directly from modern Greek. Historically, these "modern" sounds probably entered Greek pronunciation around the
end of the Roman Koine period.
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