Hi ---
I am curious about why the hard pe in the Hebrew names Pinchas (English Phinehas) and Peleg are spelled with a phi instead of a pi in the LXX.
Why did the LXX spirantize the pe when they transliterated the names? Does this reflect a different Hebrew pronunciation of the names or is there some other reason?
And I wonder why the English transliteration carried over the phi for Phinehas, but not for Peleg?
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