That may be assuming too much. It may be evidence that the LXX translators
interpreted the Hebrew text to say that, but it is not sufficient to say that
this is what the Hebrew text means, or meant originally.
Of course. But Hebrew grammar had changed much less by the time of the
LXX translators than it has now, and so the LXX reading of the verb is
likely to be more accurate than that of modern Hebrew speakers.
--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work) http://www.qaya.org/
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