First, I express my appreciation to all who have commented on this subject.
A lot of good information has been presented, IMO. Drawing precise
conclusions from the information has been the difficulty.
One question I did not see addressed -- unless I missed it -- is, why (for
what possible purpose) is the Yah ("Jah") form in the text at all? Is it a
clue hidden in plain sight? Is it an anachronism? For example, if the
Tetragram is to be pointed as Yeho-, why do we have Yah (standing alone) and
-yahu as
a prefix in theophorics? Is this irrelevant? Then, why is it there in the
text at all? I have no answers, just questions.
This discussion may never be conclusive -- absent the discovery of some long
hidden, new scroll or somesuch -- but it has been very interesting, and has
produced a tad more light than heat.