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Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question
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From
: "C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>
To
: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject
: Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question
Date
: Thu, 17 Feb 2005 07:26:00 -0800
On 2/17/05 4:42 AM, "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org> wrote:
>
This may be true, this may be the only place in the Bible where
>
hishtaxawe is used with both a king and YHWH as indirect object of the
>
one verb.
Yes, but I found one instance where when YHWH and MLK are co-referential.
Zech. 14:17
whyh )$r l)-y(lh m)t m$pxwt h)rC )l-yrw$lM lh$txwt lmlK yhwh cb)wt
This, however, is not relevant to the problem under consideration.
greetings,
Clay Bartholomew
[b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question
,
kgraham0938, 02/16/2005
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question
,
Trevor Peterson, 02/16/2005
<Possible follow-up(s)>
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question
,
Karl Randolph, 02/16/2005
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question
,
Yigal Levin, 02/17/2005
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question
,
Martin Shields, 02/17/2005
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question
,
Yigal Levin, 02/17/2005
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question
,
Peter Kirk, 02/17/2005
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question
,
C. Stirling Bartholomew, 02/17/2005
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question
,
Maurice A. O'Sullivan, 02/17/2005
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question
,
Yigal Levin, 02/17/2005
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