Exodus 31:16I believe that in Greek the neuter plural SABBATA is commonly used for a singular Sabbath. I know that is regular usage in the New Testament, not sure about LXX without checking. And in Greek a neuter plural noun would be referenced with a neuter plural pronoun, without implying true plurality. So this is probably an issue in the Greek rather than the Hebrew.
(double checked the reference. sorry I switched the numbers on Deut 6:9)
BHS notes that the Septuagint translates "to do them" instead of "to do the Sabbath". However, it does not mention the fact that Septuagint translates earlier in the verse "keep the Sabbaths" (plural) instead of "keep the Sabbath".
1. Is there reason to believe that the plural in Septuagint does NOT reflect a different Vorlag?
2. If not (i.e. if it may indeed reflect a different Vorlag), why wouldn't BHS mention it?
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