>Perhaps the Israelites had a mental concept like "bring righteousness"
Isn't it true that allowing yourself assumptions like that, you can explain
anything to suit your notions?
Would you show me same usage of izdk le as make righteous anywhere else, or
is it just another speculation?
Sincerely,
Vadim Cherny
as
>Oh, irregular grammar again... Is there anything in the chapter you read
>a standard grammar?but
>
>Anyway, your explanation may explain ABSENCE of le where it is needed,
>not PRESENCE of le when, according to your translation, it doesn't fit.
HH: There is nothing irregular about the grammar. The preposition L
can be a marker for the accusative with an active transitive verb.
See Waltke-O'Connor 11.2.10g. That is what most people understand in
Isaiah 53:11. "The righteous one justified the many." Perhaps the
Israelites had a mental concept like "bring righteousness" for the
verb. Then a goal-oriented preposition like L would be suitable: "The
righteous one brought righteousness to the many." You should also
consider buying a good grammar, and you should consult other
translations. Again, you would avoid a lot of headaches.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.