Perhaps, anyone would care to explain me how iazdik zadik lerabim
was translated as the righteous shall make many righteous.
Besides the tense, I don't see preposition le in this translation.
HH: Biblical Hebrew is flexible about the handling of accusative
objects of the verb. Sometimes a verb might not have the preposition
L before an object, and sometimes it might have it. Consider the verb
KSH (cover) which has a L preposition at Isaiah 11:9 but does not
have a L preposition at Isaiah 6:2. The same writer varied his
practice in two different contexts. So although the HIPHIL of CDQ
(iazdik) does not normally take the preposition L with the
accusative, that fact does not mean that it cannot.