So, is it established from Hebrew, that the perfect refers to completed
action that is past at the time of speaking/writing? I ask because other
languages that uses a perfect/perfective do not necessarily place the time
reference of the perfect only at the time of speaking, but can place the
time reference at a future [or past] time and then present the action/state
as complete at that time. I other words, does qatal equal past/past
perfect, or can it also be seen as past perfect/present perfect/future
perfect? If so, there is no 'prophetic perfect', but simply a normal
perfect whose reference point is future. I have assumed my teacher meant
the second option in his explanation of qatal, as he said it was always
perfect, but could be present or future. I may need to drag out a few
grammar books.
Kevin Riley
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