Many English translations render )EBEN-XEN as "charm" in the sense of a magic
stone. I wonder why. It is true that XEN can mean "beauty, elegance" and
therefore translating it with "precious stone" is acceptable. But "charm" in
the sense of a magical object suddenly jumps into a totally different
semantic domain. This is possible in English where "charm" has both meanings.
But is it possible in biblical Hebrew? I wonder about that.
Reinier de Blois
The question here centres on the word that is translated as 'gift' andHH: "Stone of grace" probably implies a jewel (NASB: "precious
'bribe'; and also on the 'object' of the proverb either as 'the person'
who is the recipient of the 'gift/bribe' or the 'it' ie the gift/bribe
itself.
Personally speaking I favour 'gift' even though this word is often
translated as bribe elswhere, this is very much linked to the somewhat
esthetical sense of the word 'stone of grace' and its position in the
sentence?. Anyway please elucidate me with your grammatical intuitions.
I learn good things from these heated debates.
stone") or charm (NRSV: "magic stone"). The verses on either side of
Prov 17:8, which may not be related to it, concern evil. The Hebrew
word here, $+D ("gift/bribe"). almost always refers to something
evil. There's not a completely unambiguous example of a positive
meaning for the word in the OT, it seems to me. Also, the verse
suggests a somewhat negative meaning for $+D because it apparently
aims to bring success to the one who possesses it. A true gift is
given for the joy that it will bring to the recipient, not for the
success it will bring to the giver. So I would lean towards the bribe
interpretation.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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