> If we leave alone the NT, Cyrus and Ahaz, and carefully read the text
> of Isaiah, will you then deny that the writer of particular portions
> of the book had a distant future in mind and made predictions
> regarding this time? In other words, are you saying that the text of
> Isaiah only relates to a period when the book was written or to a
> time before this period?
>
>
You pose an interesting question, which I have actually thought
a little about. Have you seen Watts' commentary on the book,
I think it is very interesting. In any case, I'd like to distinguish
between First Isaiah (Isaiah of Jerusalem) and later writers
who may have inserted comments in Chapters 1-39 (see
Williamson, The Book of Isaiah). It would be useful
to discuss particular passages.
Liz
Re: [b-hebrew] Qumran agreement with LXX and MT, was: aph
, (continued)