> Afternoon all,
>
> Prov 21:18 is a bit odd. Its not grammatically odd so much as its
enigmatic
> in meaning. How is it that the wicked can be a "kopher" (kaph pe resh)
for
> the righteous? Must we render kopher in the sense of "take the place" in
> order to render something like "the wicked take the place of the
righteous"
> (in the same way that Haman took the place of Mordechai on the gallows)?
>
> Thanks for your learned input.
>
> Jim
>
I like your explanation, but I can try another. Tell me if it seems
stretch.
The wicked and the unfaithful cover for the righteous and the honest by
comparison. That is, the minor faults of the righteous and the honest (they
do, after all, need a *kopher*) are lessened to negligible when compared
with the ignominy of the wicked and the unfaithful. Render a debt
negligible--that's what a kopher does.
Shalom,
Bryan
B. M. Rocine
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13206