Prov 21:18 is a bit odd. Its not grammatically odd so much as its enigmatic
in meaning. How is it that the wicked can be a "kopher" (kaph pe resh) for
the righteous? Must we render kopher in the sense of "take the place" in
order to render something like "the wicked take the place of the righteous"
(in the same way that Haman took the place of Mordechai on the gallows)?
Thanks for your learned input.
Jim
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Jim West
Quartz Hill School of Theology
Adjunct Professor of Biblical Studies