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  • From: Polycarp66 AT aol.com
  • To: watts-westmaas AT zonnet.nl, b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: Verb (haya) 'to be' - help
  • Date: Fri, 3 Jan 2003 06:15:02 EST

In a message dated 1/3/2003 5:08:43 AM Eastern Standard Time, watts-westmaas AT zonnet.nl writes:

Please could someone tell me the historical and/or grammatical reasons why
the word (haya) 'to be' is written differently in the following:

Exodus 3:12 'I will be with you' - in the future - this is self
explanatory
Exodus4:15 'I will be with you' - also self explanatory

BUT, in Exodus 6:7 'I will be to you God' - In the Past? (hayiti)
and then twice in Hosea 13:14 'I will be thy plagues, I will be thy
destruction' the final letter 'heh' is dropped? from the future tense, and
subsequently a different pronounciation.


You had me a bit puzzled regarding your citation of Hos 13.14 (twice).  HfYfH does not appear in this passage.  What you have done is to confuse it with ):eHiY [which also has the forms )"Y and )"Y."H] meaning "where" with the verb HfYfH.  In Ex 3.12 and 4.15 you have the "imperfect" form whereas Ex 6.7 the form is "perfect".


gfsomsel



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