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  • From: "Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>
  • To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.metalab.unc.edu>
  • Subject: RE: Is R)$YT even a "time" word?
  • Date: Tue, 26 Mar 2002 10:20:41 -0500




>
> In a message dated 3/26/2002 2:39:28 AM Eastern
> Standard Time,
> Peter_Kirk AT sil.org writes:
>
> >The LXX translators clearly understood BERESHIT
> as EN ARCHi, "in the
> >beginning", in an absolute sense. It is possible
> that the aorist has an
> >inceptive sense here, so "In the beginning God
> began to create the
> >heavens and the earth". I have no quarrel with
> that understanding of the
> >Greek, though I doubt if the Hebrew can mean
> that. But the Greek does
> >not mean "In the beginning of God's
> creating...", the sentence structure
> >is quite different and EN ARCHi is absolute and
> unqualified.
> _________________
>
> Yes, but the LXX is not the final arbiter of what
> the author intended. The
> LXX has been found in error (or clueless) in more
> than one case.
>
> GfSomsel
>
Dear Peter,
You have already admitted that the LXX has an
Aristotelian bias, so why are you arguing on its basis?
Best,
Liz






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