From: "Joseph Brian Tucker" <music AT riverviewcog.org>
To: b-hebrew
Subject: vav conversive
Date: Wed, 1 Sep 1999 15:15:35
Greetings
What is wrong with the following statement?
A vav conversive indicates:
1. The word is a verb.
2. The subject of the verb, a pronoun, is indicated by the consonant
following the vav. When such a **pronoun subject** precedes the root, this
pronoun is called a prefix, and we say that the verb has prefix form.
3. The verb should be translated in the past tense.
I am primarily concerned about the "pronoun subject" verses "pronominal
element" understanding. Is this distinction important enough to make an
issue over?
Insignificant questions...
1. Where did the tetra in tetragrammaton come from? Just the Greek?
2. If there was a miscontruing of the divine name, why was there not a
misconstruing of elohim?
3. What constitutes a word in hebrew?
4. What is the best way to describe the difference between a root and a
stem?
Thank You
Brian Tucker
music AT riverviewcog.org
Riverview, MI