> All references to the subject are plural except for the 3ms
> pronominal suffix. Why is it singular?
It seemed to me that it is singular because (aM - nation or
people, is a collective noun, and Hebrew treats singular collective
nouns as American English does (the company has decided) rather than
as British English does (the company have decided) - as taking
singular verbs and pronouns.
> Is it possible that we have misunderstood this verse?
> Paraphrased, might it mean "but the people who are aware of his god
> (that is, this false god of the enemy) will prevail and act."
If (aM is singular in number, then the verse can be read (more
naturally, I think) as "But the nation that knows its god..." Thus
it would describe the nation who knows (appreciates and worships) the
true God, in contrast to the nation described previously.