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  • From: "J. Ted Blakley" <jtb1 AT st-andrews.ac.uk>
  • To: "Kata Markon" <gmark AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: [GMark] Hardness of Heart (Mark 6:52 and 8:17)
  • Date: Tue, 6 Apr 2004 17:22:23 +0100

I am currently pursuing a couple of ideas in the GMark trying to determine what sort of relationship(s) obtain between a number of key features of Mark: the Sea-crossings, the similarities between the disciples and the Pharisees, the spread of the kingdom in relation to Jew-Gentile issues, etc. In particular, I have been looking at the issue of the disciples' hardness of heart (blindness, deafness, etc.) which crops up in 6:52 and 8:17, and pursuing a couple of theses about how their hardness of heart relates to the hardness of heart of the Pharisees (3:5, 10:5) and to Jesus' mission to Gentiles which the disciples seem to be having a hard time with (Note the first, failed trip to Bethsaida in 6:45-52 and the disciples refusal to take 'extra loaves' with them on the second, successful trip to Bethsaida 8:14-21 (Here I find Gibson's thesis about the nature of Jesus' rebuke of the disciples convincing. See Jeffrey B. Gibson, "The Rebuke of the Disciples in Mark 8.14-21," JSNT 27 (1986): 31-47.). So with that introduction here are the particular issues I would enjoy receiving feedback on.

When the disciples are described as having hardened hearts in 6:52 and 8:17, it would seem that they are purposefully being compared to the Pharisees who are the only other characters described in this way (3:5, 10:5, note the different words for hardness), and the warning about the leaven of the Pharisees in 8:15 provides additional support for this connection between the disciples and the Pharisees. What I find interesting and potentially significant is the fact that nouns are used to describe the Pharisees hardness of heart (PWRWSEI, SKLHROKARDIAN) whereas the disciples' hardness of heart is described using passive participles (PEPWRWMENH). Do the nouns communicate the idea that hardness of heart is simply a property of the Pharisees, that is, hardness of heart is simply their nature in Mark's gospel? If so, do the verbs/participles give the sense that the hardness of heart of the disciples is not so much a static property of the disciples but something that is taking/has been taking place throughout the course of the narrative?

This leads to a second question, namely, is there any progression indicated in the disciples hardness of heart via the syntax of 6:52 and 8:17. That is, I think it could be argued that as this section of the gospel progresses the disciples are shown to be increasingly dull, blind, deaf, resistant; their hardness seems to be increasing/intensifying thus making them dangerously close to becoming those on the outside, thus the warning about the leaven of the Pharisees and of Herod. Given that narrative progression, I am wondering if this same thing is taking place in the grammar of 6:52 and 8:17. As I have attempted to pursue this question, I have found myself confused about how 6:52 and 8:17 can and might be translated. Here are my questions.

6:52b. ALL' HN AUTWN hH KARDIA PEPWRWMENH.
It looks like we are dealing with a periphrastic construction here which I am inclined to translate as "But their heart(s) was/were hardened." Is it possible, however, to translate this as "But their hearts were becoming hardened?" Also, what's going on with the plural AUTWN and the singular KARDIA? Is this just a typical greek idiom, no different in meaning if both were plural, or is this saying something different than if it were AUTWN hAI KARDIAI?

8:17b PEPWRWMENHN ECETE THN KARDIAN hUMWN;
For some reason, this seems like an odd construction to me. At first, I was inclined to translate this as "Have you hardened your hearts?" as if PEPWRWMENHN ECETE were functioning like a periphrastic construction. But, I've not been able to find anyone who suggests that ECW can function as the helping verb in a periphrastic construction. Also, I would think that since the participle is accusative this would rule it out as a periphrastic since they are normally nominative (unless ECW can be used in a periphrastic construction and happens to take the participle in the accusative). What seems more likely to me is that the PEPWRWMENHN ... THN KARDIAN hUMWN is functioning as an object clause of ECETE, which would explain the accusative case but then leads to the question of translation. Perhaps "Do you have hearts which have been hardened?" (dropping out the hUMWN as redundant in English). I also wondered about the possibility of translating it as, "Have your hearts become hardened?"

Basically, what I have been trying to determine is if it is (1) possible and (2) probable from a grammatical standpoint to translate 6:52 and 8:17 respectively as "There hearts were becoming hardened" and "Have your hearts become hardened?" These would seem to fit the overall progression of Mark's narrative with respect to the disciples but I am wondering what level of violence, if any, I would be doing to the syntax of each sentence.

I guess ultimately my question is whether there is more going on in 6:52 and 8:17 than the typical translations of "there hearts were hardened" and "Do you have hardened hearts." These translations don't seem to communicate the dynamics of action of the participles in contrast with the more static nouns of 3:5 and 10:5, and these translations don't seem to communicate any nuanced difference between 6:52 and 8:17(which, when all is said and done, may in fact be what is going on).

Sorry for the length of this email. It seemed important to me to communicate both what I am thinking and why at this point. Feel free to repsond to as little or much of this as appropriate.

Sincerely,
Ted


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
J. Ted Blakley
Ph.D. Candidate St. Mary's College, University of St. Andrews
35 Auldburn Park
St. Andrews, Fife KY16 8JD
01334-479843



  • [GMark] Hardness of Heart (Mark 6:52 and 8:17), J. Ted Blakley, 04/06/2004

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