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  • From: "James Crossley" <crossleyjames AT hotmail.com>
  • To: gmark AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: Mark 7:3-4 and the readers of Mark
  • Date: Mon, 21 Feb 2000 14:22:57 GMT





From: "Stefan Lücking" <stefan.luecking AT uni-muenster.de>
Reply-To: "Kata Markon" <gmark AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
To: "Kata Markon" <gmark AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: [gmark] Mark 7:3-4 and the readers of Mark
Date: Sun, 20 Feb 2000 15:46:43

The long explanation of Jewish purity customs in Mark 7,3-4 normally serves
as argument that the Markan readers are gentile Christians. But the
uniqueness of this gloss within the gospel of Mark makes me doubt if it
alone is sufficient proof for this thesis with its repercussions on the
understanding of the whole Gospel.
First of all, it is the only explanation of Jewish customs (by the
author
of Mark) I found in the whole Gospel. In other debates about Jewish customs
there are no such explanations.
Second, the use of "all Jews/Judaeans" (PANTES hOI IOUDAIOI) is
unique to
the gospel and appears to me very unmarkan. Elsewhere, Mark uses the word
"Judaeans" (IOUDAIOI) only in the mouth of gentiles (Pilate 15:2, 15:9,
15:12; the Roman soldiers 15:28) and in the Roman inscription on the cross
whereas Jewish mockers use the expression "King of Israel" (15:32).
Third, there are so many unexplained allusions to and suppositions
from a
Jewish background in the gospel of Mark, that I can hardly imagine how
gentile Christians could understand large parts of the gospel (e.g., the
prologue) if they had not been so deeply introduced into Jewish culture
that it would not make any sense to speak of a "gentile" Christians (but of
Christian "proselytes" or so).
Fourth, I don t see where problems which are specific for gentile
Christians (as e.g. social relations to the gentile environment) are
treated. Just compare the problems Paul discusses in 1 Corinthians.
Monotheism is self evident as one side of the highest command (Mark
12:28-34), but there is no polemic against polytheism - apart from very
subtle allusions to Scripture as in Mark 5:1-20. Typically Jewish Christian
problems, however, as the Sabbath, purity laws, the temple are treated
throughout the gospel.

So, I am really puzzled. For, on the one hand, Mark 7:3-4 is very
strong
evidence for gentile readers with few knowledge about Jewish life. On the
other hand a lot of other indicators point to Jewish Christian readers.
Now, I would like to ask: What can I do with this contradictory
evidence
concerning the readers of Mark? Related to this question are a couple of
other questions: Is there any other evidence for gentile Christian readers
in the Gospel of Mark? If so: how could these readers understand the
allusions and hidden quotes from Scripture and other Jewish literature? On
the other hand: if the Markan readers were Jewish Christian, how can the
gloss in Mark 7:2-4 be explained?

Thank you in advance for your answers.

Stefan Lücking
University of Münster, Germany

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Some responses:
Mark 7:2-4 can be seen as an explanation of detailed halakah for an unfamiliar gentile audience. The reason why practices such as the Sabbath are not explained is because Jews were famous for celebrating it in the ancient world. We could say the same about avoidance of pork, for example. The Temple was also well known by gentiles and was apparently a monumentous sight. Citing scripture without referencing is typical in the New Testament so we can assume that many from the audience were familiar with the Hebrew bible and would therefore be familiar with practices such as Sabbath or the building of the Temple. As Mark 7:2-4 is not explicitly biblical (teaching of the elders) we have another reason why it must be explained. I suspect that Mark's audience almost certainly contained gentiles.

Another point I think that needs discussion is the translation of IOUDAIOI as 'Judeans'. I suspect 'Jews' would be a better translation. It is analagous to the Johannine usage which has been distorted by the translation 'Judeans' or the like (e.g. Jewish leaders. Compare John 2:13 'the passover of the Jews (IOUDAIOI)' would make little sense as Passover of the Judeans or Jewish leaders.

Yours,

James Crossley,
Dept. of Theology,
University of Nottingham,
U.K.

crossleyjames AT hotmail.com
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