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  • From: "Given, Mark Douglas" <MarkGiven AT MissouriState.edu>
  • To: "Corpus-Paul" <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] 1 Cor 6:16
  • Date: Fri, 1 Dec 2006 10:05:52 -0600

That sounds like a good answer, James. Several translations go with
something like "it says" (e.g., "it is said," NRSV). But Jim's question also
prompted me to go back and look at Gen 2:24 in context. It seems possible to
me that Paul thinks "he" is Adam:

Genesis 2:23-25 23 And Adam said, This now is bone of my
bones, and flesh of my flesh; she shall be called woman, because she was
taken out of her husband. 24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his
mother and shall cleave to his wife, and they two shall be one flesh. 25 And
the two were naked, both Adam and his wife, and were not ashamed. (Brenton
LXX)



Couldn't one make the case that the voice of the narrator doesn't resume
until v. 25? Adam would drawing a conclusion based on his naming in v. 24.
Maybe Paul understood it that way.

I hate to go out on a limb on this without checking some commentaries, but
it's the end of the semester!

Mark

Mark D. Given
Associate Professor
Department of Religious Studies
Missouri State University
901 S. National Ave.
Springfield, MO 65897
________________________________

From: corpus-paul-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org on behalf of James Ernest
Sent: Thu 11/30/2006 10:39 PM
To: Corpus-Paul
Cc: MillerJimE AT aol.com
Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] 1 Cor 6:16


> As far as I know this is the only time Paul, or anyone else, uses phesin
> for a Scripture quote.

Don't know about that, but I was just notincing that it seems pretty common
in the Apostolic Fathers (1 Clem, 2 Clem, Barn)--maybe worth checking to see
if there are any instances that match what you're suggesting here? My
impression is that when phesin (or another verb) is used without a subject
the writer simply isn't being specific about the subject--God, Moses,
scripture, whatever--it's an authoritative quotation and specific subject
doesn't matter.

James Ernest





On 11/30/06, MillerJimE AT aol.com <MillerJimE AT aol.com > wrote:

I don't think I have asked this question on this list before. 1
Corinthinas 6:16 quotes Genesis 2:24 and introduces the quotation not with
his usual "gegraptai" (1:19; 2:9; 4:6; 9:9) but with "phesin" (he says). As
far as I know this is the only time Paul, or anyone else, uses phesin for a
Scripture quote.
Who is the "he" who says this? Commentaries tend to opt for God
as the inspirer of Scripture. However, I think Paul is saying that this is
quoted by Jesus as a teaching on sexual ethics -- a dominical saying related
to Matthew 19 where Jesus also quotes Genesis 2:24 against polygamy (divorce
& remarriage) as well as other non-marital sexual outlets (19:10-12).
Any thoughts on this theory? Does anyone know of a scholar who
has published this idea before?
Thanks,
Jim Miller

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Mark D. Given
Associate Professor
Department of Religious Studies
Missouri State University
901 S. National Ave.
Springfield, MO 65897
Mark D. Given
Associate Professor
Department of Religious Studies
Missouri State University
901 S. National Ave.
Springfield, MO 65897

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  • Re: [Corpus-Paul] 1 Cor 6:16, Given, Mark Douglas, 12/01/2006

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