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  • From: Frank Jacks <cfjacks AT comcast.net>
  • To: Corpus-Paul <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Approaches to the question of divine-Christolog y in the NT
  • Date: Wed, 15 Jun 2005 16:07:55 -0400

Thank you for bringing up this point, which in fact was what Terrien was protesting against as a misreading of those texts, which are to be taken as "monolatrist," not "monotheistic" as others have gotten in the habit of claiming.! My point was not that "exclusive submission to YHWH alone" was not created only in the Hellenistic Era but that it was not until then that the
justification/validation of this practice was not supported by the "monotheistic thesis," based upon the Greek monistic penchant. The exclusive worship of YHWH only for Israel as the result of a "contract" goes back (at least) to the D-Code and Josiah's Reform of 621 BCE. Before then, apparently the worship of YAHW was based upon their understanding that YHWH owned the land upon which they lived, so that the "tithes and offerings" were in effect "land rent" by tenant farmers, an idea we find reappearing in "Second Isaiah" when the sphere/area/arena of "YHWH's reign" was expanded by the understanding that he was not just "Lord Of the Land (of Israel)" but the creator of this world, which becomes the rationale
underneath the hope of the "coming day" when "all peoples" would submit to his authority as they live and worked HIS land.
So yes, we do find in "Second Isaiah" the hope that the day would come in which "all peoples/nations" would submit to Israel's god as their "lord" also, which presumably was the basis for Paul's mission as "the in-gathering of the gentiles." Still,
this isl "monalatry," not "monotheism."

Thanks for providing me the opportunity to share more fully what I learned from Dr. Terrien.

Frank

Clive F. Jacks, Th.D.
Professor Of Religion, Emeritus
Pikeville College
Pikeville, KY

(but now happily retired back home in the metro Atlanta area!)



Tony Costa wrote:

Frank Jacks wrote:


"I dare say that by the Hellenistic era that some Jews
did draw upon Greek metaphysics and its monism to
justify/validate this "exclusivity" but to attribute
this
philosophically based rationale as common to most
(much less all) Jews strikes me as rather
over-reaching."

Why would the Jews have to wait until the "Hellenistic
era" to justify or validate their "exclusivity" as far
as their God goes when Deutero-Isaiah (esp.
Isa.40-49)argued for it centuries before?

Tony Costa, M.A., ThD (cand)
Toronto, Canada
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