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  • From: "Tony Costa" <tmcos AT canada.com>
  • To: corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: RE: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul break the Law?
  • Date: Sun, 16 Jan 2005 15:28:06 -0800 (PST)

Jeffrey wrote:


"Hi Tony,
By my count there are 13 places that Paul uses TELOS in
his writings.  It is true that Thayer uses the term
end.  But 1d) of his definitions is "the end to which
all things relate, the aim, purpose.  This IMO is the
END that Paul is using.  1 Tim 1:5 uses that same
verbage, but most translations put Goal.  So 10:4 could
just as easily read Christ is the Goal of the Law unto
Righteousness....  Paul is talking about
righteousness.  Whether he is saying that walking in
Christ is the equal of a righteous use of the Torah or
Christ is an example of what the Righteousness of the
Torah would look like is not the point I am trying to
argue here.  It is just that using the best parallel
examples of Telos that Paul uses, IMO makes 10:4
more an argument for the Law than against the Law. "


Tony Costa responded:

Jeff, words ultimately mean what they mean in context.
TELOS is determined by its context. In Rom.10:4, most
grammarians and lexicons agree that the use of TELOS is
that of termination and cessation. This understanding
of the law ending with Christ is supported elsewhere in
Paul's writings (Gal.3:15-25; 1 Cor.9:20) As has been
mentioned by another writer, Christ is the goal to
which the law was pointing, once that goal has been
reached, the law has served its purpose. Paul is not an
antinomian, a charge he rejects in Rom.6. Paul speaks
of a new law, "the law of Christ" (1 Cor.9:20-21;
Gal.6:2) and the "law of the Spirit" which Paul
contrasts with the law of sin and death which he
identifies as the Mosaic law. Thus, I don't follow your
reasoning that Rom 10:4 is " more an argument for the
Law than against the Law. " Best regards,

Tony Costa Th.D (cand)




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