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  • From: "Billy LeJeune" <billyl AT wcs.edu>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: RE: "we" and "you" in Galatians
  • Date: Tue, 2 Oct 2001 05:58:38 -0500


Dear Moon,

I am an amateur at this, but I'll give it a try.

Moon
I have not read Wright. So, Billy could you explain how he handles
"you" in Gal 3:28?

"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free,
there is no male and female. For all of you are one in Christ Jesus.
[PANTES GAR hUMEIS EIS EN CRISTWi IHSOU]"

For this sentence to make sense, shouldn't "all of you" include
both Jews and Gentiles in its referent? Otherwise, the predicate
"are one in Christ" does not seem to make sense at all.

Billy
I think Wright would take it to mean "those Jews and Gentiles who are in
Christ are one." I have not read him on this verse, but I think I am
correct. "Present Day Jerusalem" ie. non-believing Jews or Jews in
opposition to Paul would not be in this "one."

(2) Gal 4:5-6 is also difficult for Wright's position.

"so that he may redeem those under the law, so that
we may receive the sonship [hUIOQESIAN].
Because you are sons, GOd sent the Spirit of his son into our
hearts, crying "Abba Father"

I don't see how "you" and "we" can be read as the same here. I see the
part before this as showing that "We under the law were slaves" and then
"you as pagans were slaves" but now "we" (Jews in Christ) and "you"
(gentiles in Christ) are both sons.


Thanks for your comments,
Billy LeJeune

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