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  • From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Romans 10:1-4
  • Date: Sun, 26 Mar 2000 21:02:53 -0600


Dear Alexander,
I have not been following this thread because the connection between
the Jeremiah passage and Rom 10:1-4 did not seem strong. But it seems that
you minimize Paul's use of God's word to provide authority for what he
says. It's true that Paul was an apostle appointed by God with direct
revelation, but even Jesus used the authority of the OT. The fact that in 2
Corinthians 3 Paul does not give a biblical source for a negating dichotomy
between the Torah and the "new covenant" of "the Spirit" does not mean that
he could not have done so (Jer 31:8, 31-34; Ezek 16:60; 34:25; 36:24-28;
37:26). In Romans 4 Paul does not "argue from chronological sequence that
Abraham's status as righteous while uncircumcised negates the obligation of
circumcision for Abraham's descendants who are of the resurrection faith."
At least that is not the explicit purpose of his argument. Paul argues that
Abraham's example shows that people can be reckoned righteous apart from
circumcision. Paul, at least here, does not go on to argue that
circumcision is not obligatory for anyone.

Sincerely,
Harold Holmyard






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