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  • From: "Jeffrey B. Gibson" <jgibson000 AT mailhost.chi.ameritech.net>
  • To: Corpus Paulinum <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: 2 Cor 5:16b
  • Date: Fri, 01 Oct 1999 13:47:43 -0500


Over on XTalk, one of our C-P members, Dave Hindley, has not only raised
the issue of the meaning of 2 Cor 5:16b (arguing that it implies that
whatever Jesus was in the flesh [i.e., in history] was of no concern to
the author of the verse); he has also gone on to assert that the passage
is an interpolation.

My response to the argument regarding what the verse implies was the
following:

> Does this verse really say that Paul has no concern for the Historical
> Jesus? Given one of Paul's uses of SARX isn't it possible that what he is
> asserting here is that he no longer thinks, as he certainly once did (and
> in so doing persecuted the church), of the Messiah as having to be a
> warrior?
>
> It is a long way from KATA SARKA (according to (the) "flesh") which
> modifies a way of thinking about something (i.e., the nature of
> Messiahship) to not being concerned about what the historical Jesus was
> like.

But having said this, I realize that I'm relatively ignorant on the
scholarship on this verse. I'd like to ask, then, What is the consensus,
if any, regarding what "Paul" is saying here? Is it anything like what I
argue?

Also, I'd like to know if there any evidence at all that this verse is
really an interpolation? I could see how someone might want to **argue**
that it is IF the verse means anything like what David seems to think it
means. But to my eyes, this only begs the question.

Yours,

Jeffrey
--
Jeffrey B. Gibson
7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A
Chicago, Illinois 60626
e-mail jgibson000 AT ameritech.net




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