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  • From: "Jeffrey B. Gibson" <jgibson000 AT mailhost.chi.ameritech.net>
  • To: Corpus-paul <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: C-P: 1 Cor. 8:6
  • Date: Fri, 30 Jul 1999 13:45:36 -0500


Liz Fried wrote:

> > From: Jeffrey B. Gibson
>
> > Liz Fried wrote:
> >
> > > How did Paul understand the relationship between Jesus and God?
> > >
> > > thanks.
> > >
> >
> > Do you think you could be a little more specific about what it is
> > that you take to be
> > stated in this text about this relationship that is causing you
> > to ask this question?

>
> I'll try:
> 1) I guess from Phil. Paul believes that Jesus pre-existed, and willingly
> became flesh.
> Now, of course, we read this in the Wisd. Sol, that this is what every soul
> does, it pre-exists, probably in the morphe thiou, and then becomes flesh,
> willingly or not. So is Paul's belief about Jesus different from this, and
> if so how ?
> 2) Is Paul's notion of Jesus the same that is expressed in GJohn, the word
> made flesh, so that Jesus=YHWH, if that is what GJohn means?
> or 3) is Jesus a man who was exalted by being raised from the dead, so that
> we know that the time of the general resurrection of the dead is upon us?
> 4) none of the above? if so, what then?
> 5) all of the above?????
>

Time prevents me from speaking about the validity of each of the elements of
your
chain of thought, many of which I would questionable. For instance, it is by
no means
clear that pre-existence of Jesus is assumed or taught in the Christ hymn in
Philippians, or that GJohn says that **Jesus** was in the beginning "with",
let alone
equal to, or that he was God.

More importantly, I think what you are doing in approaching 1 Cor 8:6 with
the set of
assumptions you do, namely, that it's background is the question of
pre-existence,
and therefore that its intent is to assert something about Jesus'
relationship with
God in terms of Jesus being one who was pre-existent, is misguided.

I would take the background of the text to be Rabbinnic claims about the the
Torah as
the embodiment of God's purposes in and for for the world. If I recall
correctly,
Mishnaic, and pseudepigraphic evidence (Wisdom of Solomon) shows that a key
feature
in emphasizing this claim was to assert that the Torah was the instrument
through
which the world was created and the purpose for which the world came into
being. So
what I would see Paul doing here is offering in the language of this Torah
speculation
a counterproposal about where God's plans and purposes for the world are most
blindingly known. On what basis do I assert this? Paul does the same thing in
1 Cor
10:1-5 his midrashic identification of the rock which followed the Israelites
in the
wilderness with Christ/Jesus -- for Rabbis identified this rock with Torah.

Hope this helps.

Yours,

Jeffrey

P.S. Can others suggest studies besides Dunn's _Making of Christology_ which
challenges the pre-existence theme in Philippians?

--
Jeffrey B. Gibson
7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A
Chicago, Illinois 60626
e-mail jgibson000 AT ameritech.net






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