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  • From: "Liz Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: RE: One or two covenants in the OT?
  • Date: Mon, 31 May 1999 22:23:58 -0400


> From: Jon Peter : Saturday, May 29, 1999 12:30 AM

>
> Hi Liz
> >
> > >
> > > A key point about Paul's views on Torah in Galatians is perhaps being
> > > overlooked in the current discussions, and it is that the Hebrew Bible
> > > presents two incompatible and contradictory covenants. It is this
> > > dichotomy
> > > that Paul is resolving here with his exegesis.
> > Of course, you understand that the Jew certainly doesn't view
> these as two
> > separate covenants.
>
> Paul clearly viewed them as separate. He repudiates one in favor of the
> other. I would be interested in hearing how the circumcision covenants are
> understood to be the same or identical or whatever, in some
> systematic way.

I don't think Paul viwed them as separate. I think he was separating them to
make a point. But this is speculation on my part.

The Jew views them as the same covenant, and the bible testifies that
historically they were so viewed. In Ex. 3:23 we read "The Israelites
groaned under their slavery and cried out. Out of the slavery their cry for
help rose up to God. God heard their groaning, and God remembered his
covenant with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. God looked upon the Israelites, and
God took notice of them."

The view of the biblical writer and of the Jewish people throughout history
from the time these stories were created is that *because* of his covenant
with Abraham, God kept his promise to him. He did so by rescuing his seed,
the physical descendants of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and bringing them out
of Egypt and into the promised land. This is what he promised Abraham he
would do. That God brought the Jews out of Egypt and across the wilderness
and into Israel is the proof that God has the power and will to fulfill his
promises to the Jewish people. This is the whole point of the Exodus
tradition.
The Exodus tradition has no meaning except as a fulfillment of God's
promise, his covenanted promise, to Abraham.

Because of his promise to Abraham, YHWH God became the god of the Jewish
people, i.e., the physical descendants of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Out of
that covenanted relationship, God gave them his torah. He brought the
Hebrews out of slavery under Pharaoh to make them his own slaves. The
covenantal relationship, He being the God of the Jews, and the Jews being
his people was interpreted by the biblical writer in the framework of
master/slave, sovereign/vassal relationship. The deuteronomic covenant was
framed after the pattern of vassal treaties.

When you look at the relevant passages in the OT you must ask yourself who
wrote them, when, and why. It must be kept in mind that Jewish priests
wrote all these passages. They worte them to explain their history, and why
they were now in Exile in Babylon. They were written to show that God
remembered his covenant with Abraham. He brought their ancestors out of
Egypt and will bring them out of Babylon.

How Paul wanted to interpret these passages for his purposes is up to him.
That his interpretation is contrary to the intent of the Biblical author
(and I think there is such a thing as authorial intent) was not something to
bother Paul.

Best,
Liz

Lisbeth S. Fried
Department of Hebrew and Judaic Studies
New York University
51 Washington Sq. S.
New York, NY 10012
lqf9256 AT is3.nyu.edu
lizfried AT umich.edu




  • RE: One or two covenants in the OT?, Liz Fried, 05/31/1999

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