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  • From: "Kevin W. Woodruff" <cierpke AT prodigy.net>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Exodus 21:8
  • Date: Wed, 1 May 2013 12:08:41 -0700 (PDT)


From: Kevin W. Woodruff <cierpke AT prodigy.net>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Exodus 21:8
To: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
Date: Wednesday, May 1, 2013, 3:00 PM

Karl:
 
We have two issues here:
 
One is the meaning of ya'ad which in the Qal means "to designate or assign", and in this case to assign a concubine
 
There is a variant reading here. One (the kethiv reading) is the negative lo which "not" and the other (the qere reading) is  the preposition and pronominal suffix lo' which means "to, or for him(self), which is the reading I choose here"
 
It basically says that a man does not have the right/power/authority to sell a woman to foreigners but must redeem her, because of his faithlessness//treacherousness /deceitfulness with her by not marrying her. In an age when women were mostly chattel and goods, this legislation gave basic human rights to wives/concubines.
 
Kevin

Prof. Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div., M.S.I.S.
Library Director/Reference Librarian, Assistant Professor of Bible, Greek, Theological Bibliography and Research
Tennessee Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary, 1815 Union Ave.
Chattanooga, Tennessee 37404, United States of America
423/493-4252 (office) 812/821-4512 (cell) 423/493-4497 (FAX)
Cierpke AT prodigy.net

--- On Wed, 5/1/13, K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com> wrote:

From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
Subject: [b-hebrew] Exodus 21:8
To: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Date: Wednesday, May 1, 2013, 12:49 PM

Dear List Members:

I am finding this verse to be a little difficult to understand, and have puzzled over it many a time.

The second half seems to say, “he (the master) should not rule to sell her to a foreign people in his treating her underhandedly.”

But the first half — “But if she is displeasing in her master’s eyes…” which is clear, but the next ?? “which he had not had a (sexual ??) meeting nor did he cause her to be redeemed,”

Are we dealing with a misreading, what do the DSS say?

Is there and ancient custom of which I am ignorant?

Any thoughts?

Karl W. Randolph.



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