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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] PQH vs PTCh

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  • From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
  • To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] PQH vs PTCh
  • Date: Sat, 21 Apr 2012 10:02:53 -0700

Bill:

On Fri, Apr 20, 2012 at 7:42 AM, Bill <wrschmidt2 AT comcast.net> wrote:

> At 01:13 AM 4/17/2012, K Randolph wrote :
>
> > PTH to allure, entice, PTY gullible, gullibility. In other words,
> the verb refers to taking advantage of others gullibility. It has
> nothing to do with opening. . . . . . But in these cases, the
> meanings are so different that no etymological connection can be made.
>
>
> I don't want to come off as being an argumentative know-it-all,
> especially because Biblical Hebrew is not my forte.


This is a forum for the discussion of Biblical Hebrew, where vacuous
speculation based on extra-Biblical languages, including later forms of
Hebrew, often confuses instead of elucidates.


> However, the
> Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament (TWOT) has in its entry for
> PTH and PTY: "The basic verb idea is 'be open, wide, spacious."
>

Which Bible verses does this work reference to make this claim? Is this
based on Biblical Hebrew, or on cognate languages? If on cognate languages,
it’s invalid.

You can’t just point to TWOT and expect me to count it as an authority. It
just doesn’t work. It started years ago when I realized that Gesenius and
BDB were often wrong, so I no longer trust any of them.

Speculations based on modern ideas of psychology, modern English usage,
English etymology, Greek language, are completely irrelevant. As far as
referencing Isaac Fried’s theories—I don’t know a single person on this
list or elsewhere besides you who thinks his theories are worth a second
glance, let alone serious consideration. By referencing his theories, you
decrease your own believability.

The only thing that counts on this list is actual use in Biblical Hebrew.


> Bill
>

Karl W. Randolph.




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