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  • From: "Ishnian" <ishinan AT comcast.net>
  • To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] MADA'IN SALIH IN NORTHERN ARABIA
  • Date: Sat, 14 Apr 2012 22:04:23 -0500


JIM STINEHART: To the best of my knowledge, no word or name similar to
"Midianite" is attested in the ancient world for a people or region in Arabia
(or east Africa).

--------------------------------------------

ISHINAN: Try MadA'in SAliH of ThAmuwd in the northern Arabian peninsula
nearby the modern Saudi town of Tubuwk.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mada%27in_Saleh


Also mentioned on a carved stele commemorating Sargon's II victory over
Thamud ( 705-721) B.C. [National Museum of Saudi Arabia, Riyad]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sargon_II

??? ????? ???? ?? ???? ?????? ??????? ??????? ????? ?????? ???? ???
?????? ?? ????? ???? ?? ???? ??????? ??????? ????????? ????? ??? ???? ??????
?????? ?? ?????? ?????? ????? ???? ??? ??????? ?? ??????? ?????? ?????? ?????
??? ?????? ??????? ???? ???? ????? ?????? ????? ????.
???? ?????? ??? ???? ??? ??????? ?? ?????? ??????? ??? ???? ???? ????? ???
???? ????? ?????? ??? ????? ?? ?????? ?????? ? ???? ??? ??? ???? ???? ?? ???
????? ??????? ????? ?????? (721- 705 ?. ?) ??? ??? ?? ??? ????? ?????? ?????
??????? ??? ????? ?????? ?? ???? ??????? ???????

Best regards


Ishinan Ishibashi
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] The meaning of "Hebrew"
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George Athas:

In Year 15 of the Amarna Age, there were three ways to refer to northeast
Syria:

1. The non-Semitic locals there called it mi-ta-na or mi-ta-a-ni. With T
and D often being interchangeable in going between ancient languages, Hebrew
MDN at Genesis 25: 2 renders mi-ta-na, and with the early Hebrew author
consistently using Hebrew yod/Y to render the non-Semitic vowel A, Hebrew
MDYN at Genesis 25: 2 renders mi-ta-a-ni.

2. In the Amarna Letters, the most common name for northeast Syria is
Naharim. That name appears at Genesis 24: 10.

3. Finally there’s Paddan Aram. John van Seters at pp. 30-31 of
“Abraham in History and Tradition” (1974) shows that the northeastern
Syria area was sometimes referred to in the 14th century BCE as “the fields
of the Arameans”:

“[A] few possible references to individual Arameans occur in the Ugaritic
texts along with a reference in a fourteenth century cuneiform text to eqleti
aramima, ‘the fields of the Arameans’. This expression probably points
to the steppe region in northeastern Syria…. It may correspond to a
reference in a text from the time of Amenophis III [Akhenaten’s father]
which mentions pA Armw, ‘the land of the Arameans’.”

So Paddan Aram at Genesis 28: 2 is also vintage Year 15 nomenclature for
“the fields of the Arameans”/eqleti aramima, that is, northeast Syria in
the Amarnha Age.

The Hurrian state of Mitanni/Naharim went extinct at the end of the 14th
century BCE. Logically this vintage Year 15 nomenclature for northeast Syria
in the Patriarchal narratives must have been composed and written down in the
Amarna Age, before Mitanni/Naharim went extinct. We know that a
tent-dwelling early Hebrew [similar to Apiru, as it were] living in the
Ayalon Valley in the Amarna Age would have known to have his composition
recorded in writing, per Amarna Letter EA 273: 15-24:

“[M]ay the king [pharaoh Akhenaten], my lord, know that the Apiru wrote to
Ayyaluna and to Sarxa, and the two sons of Milkilu barely escaped being
killed.”

Based on the foregoing objective evidence, why do you make fun of my
assertion that MDN and MDYN at Genesis 25: 2 are deliberately designed to
reference northeast Syria in the Amarna Age? By the same token, XBRWN
[“Hebron”] is xa-va-ru-u-ne, and (BR-Y [“Hebrew”] is E-bi-ir-ya. All
of those non-Semitic names are well-attested in the Amarna Age, and they
match, letter for letter, with what we see in the received text of the
Patriarchal narratives. How could multiple first millennium BCE authors like
JEP be thought to come up with that vintage Year 15 non-Semitic nomenclature?
Wouldn’t you agree that most of the names at Genesis 15: 19-21 and Genesis
14: 2 are non-Semitic? Why are you so certain that the Patriarchal
narratives were composed centuries after the Amarna Age by multiple authors
in the 1st millennium BCE, given the presence of dozens of non-Semitic names
in the last 40 chapters of Genesis, being names that make sense in the Amarna
Age and in no other time period in Canaan? You don’t think that a Hittite
from Anatolia with a west Semitic name meaning “Fawn” sold Abraham
Sarah’s gravesite in chapter 23 of Genesis, do you? Isn’t that more
likely a Hurrian lord with a Hurrian name meaning “[Hurrian] lord”, all
of which makes perfect sense in Amarna Age Canaan but not in any other time
period?

With scholars not being able to agree as to the origin of the word
“Hebrew”/(BRY, why not ask if that name, like dozens of other names in
the Patriarchal narratives, is an Amarna Age non-Semitic name, being
E-bi-ir-ya and meaning “God Is Lord”? For a scholar like you who proudly
bears the title “Dean of Research”, doesn’t that seem to be a fruitful
avenue for conducting research regarding the historicity and antiquity of the
Patriarchal narratives?

Jim Stinehart
Evanston, Illinois







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