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  • From: "Nir cohen - Prof. Mat." <nir AT ccet.ufrn.br>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] is it a mistake?
  • Date: Wed, 1 Jun 2011 23:24:16 -0200

pere,

the first association of a native hebrew speaker would be the reading
of (B+Y+ as two words: (B and +Y+. the combination would then roughly
mean: thick mud.

the second association is (BW+, kind of mortgage. but then the formation
with final Y+ is, at the least, odd. odd, but not unthinkable. for example,
we have gb$ --> gb$w$, xr+ --> xir+w+, $gr --> $gryr,
sr+ --> sir+w+, qmc --> qmcwc, zrzyf, tblwl, xr$y$,
$blwl, $pryr, ($twt, xlq --> xlqyq, xmwc --> xmcyc,
qrpyp, pirxax...
(not all of them biblical).

maybe the misterious Ch 2:6 has both in mind: a person who
(accumulates property?) (drinks?) gets into mortgage which
ends up weighing upon him like heavy mud.

??????

nir cohen

>> De: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
Para: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Data: Wed, 1 Jun 2011 07:39:34 +0200Is it a
Assunto: [b-hebrew] mistake?
I read Hb 2:6 and see that the last word in the verse is (B+Y+.
I know the word TXTYT, bottom (Ez 31:14) meaning *lowest, the lowest place*.


I'm wondering if (B+Y+ is a mistake for (B+yT...
If not, may we speak of the suffix -Y+ (yod-teth)?
Or should we rather think of a yod plus a doubling of the last root
consonant of the basic )B+ (ayin, beth, teth)?

Kind regards from


--
Pere Porta




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