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  • From: Mark Spitsbergen <awakesd AT mac.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] bavel
  • Date: Sat, 30 May 2009 12:07:33 -0700

Dear list please bear with me and help me address the subject of Hebrew and
its precedence over other ancient languages. I believe that the Torah is the
highest level of authority and most accurate document of the history of
man.Therefore, it stands to reason that there was only one language at the
onset of creation and preserved until bavel, )ehad ve-safah (Genesis 11:6).
Now if the division of language took place miraculously at 'bavel' (Genesis
11:2), before each nation was divided according to their language (Genesis
10:5) then shouldn't we assume that there would not necessarily be any
evidence of a linguistic evolution from the singular language of bavel into
the diverse tongues of the nations? If we then assume that the oral tradition
of scripture was preserved in the language of the Torah then Hebrew would be
that language, correct? If the Torah then is a preserved autograph of
scripture shouldn't the five books also be a preserved transcript of that
language? Are there any truly linguistic facts (not hypothesis misnomered as
theories) to the contrary (other than the script/font)?

Finally, should we even be attempting to define Hebrew with the Ugarit
language as Dahood and others have done with the Ras Shamra text? Is it wise
to attempt to define the most ancient Hebrew words through the definitions
given to Akkadian words? Who defines how we set precedence and where we gain
a sensible balance in this quest to truly define a meaning of any particular
word in the Torah?

Thanks,

Mark Spitsbergen




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