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  • From: Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>
  • To: davidhamuel AT sbcglobal.net
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?
  • Date: Thu, 26 Feb 2009 17:33:36 -0500

David Hamuel wrote:
John,


The Babylonian Masorah has a dagesh mavhin which aim was to draw attention to
some words that might be misunderstood ,or sometimes to indicate negative
meaning, or just to indicate a different meaning.

This dagesh was very common, for example, with the name Elohim. That said, when the
verse was about just any elohim then the alef was with dagesh & the lamed with
raphe; any other elohim -- the alef was with raphe & the lamed with dagesh; but
when both the alef and lamed were with raphe then we're talking about G-D. In other
words, there was a distinction between hol and kodesh (later on the alef wasn't at
all with dagesh, but this would require an entire discussion).
Beautiful!!!!! YES!!! This is exactly what I am wanting to know. Let me ask two questions for clarification:
When you say "any other elohim" do you mean the elohim that are not G-D?
When you say "any elohim" do you mean G-D and/or the 'any other elohim' - meaning that the word would apply to either catagory?
So to summarize:
),:EL,OHIYM - G-D
),:EL.OHIYM - non-G-D god(s)
).:EL,OHIYM - any god(s)


Read: Kahle — zeitschrift fur die alttestamentliche wissenschaft (39, page
237); Kahle — Der Masoretische Text des Alten Testaments: Nach der
Überlieferung der Babylonischen Juden ( pages 34-36); the Masora in the Cairo
MS , Gottheil 14 (K4; Lm).
Sadly I don't know German. :(
Moreover, this will explain Targum Onkelos: The Decalogue, Exodus 20:
elohim aherim is אלהא אחרן , whereas Leviticus 8: 19 elohim aherim is טעוות
עממיא, or דחלן.
Again, there is a distinction between hol and kodesh when writing elohim.
There's an abundance of literature: familiarity with Rashi, Ramban, and
Rambam will reveal that they dealt with this issue one way or another;
Theodor Nöldeke — Compendious Syriac Grammar — points out identical words,
one with dagesh the other without, and each word meant something different.
Saadia Gaon in his extensive grammar material is also talking about the dagesh and raphe, and words with/without dagesh.
And see for example Kitab al-Khilaf — variants between ben Asher and ben Naftali; there was a hilluf between them about Lo (lamed alef & lamed vav): Judges 15:5, ben Asher used raphe whereas ben Naftali used dagesh to indicates negative meaning.
Now see Psalms 72:20, the word KLW -- with dagesh; 1 Samuel 6:10, the same
exact word + nikkud, but without dagesh.
ps72:20,1 <K.FL.W.> Pual Perfect 3rd Person Common Plural of <KLH>
1s6:10,12 <K.FLW.> Qal Perfect, 3rd Person Common Plural of <KL)>

Another beautiful example!!!!!


Article HE and no dagesh in second syllable.
gn14:10,2 <HA/&ID.IYM> gn15:10,15 <HA/CIP.OR>

From these samples I understand that you're having BHS, right? But these two
samples have dagesh.

The basic rule of the Article HE is : He + patach + dagesh hazak; each rule
has an exception to the rule; for example, before stressed ayin + kamats
the he gets kamats instead of patach.
That was my point - that the presence of the dagesh in the beginning of the base morpheme doesn't always mean that the prefix HE is an article - or that the absence of such a dagesh means the prefix HE is interrogative. That was the reason behind my posting of that litany of examples - to show how common it was.

Don't forget that since we're dealing with BH you can't talk about nikkud
without ta'amim! To illustrate this point here's an identical example, but
one with dagesh, the other without — the word beshem(b$m):
Genesis 12: 8, Exodus 34: 5.
gn12:8,19 <B.:/$"M> Preposition / Common Noun, Masculine Singular of <$"M>
ex34:5,8 <B:/$"M> Preposition / Common Noun, Masculine Singular of <$"M>
The meaning of these words (both the prefix and the base) is the same.

Biblical Hebrew, Grammar & Cantillation Expert
I believe it! :)

If you have other examples like the first two, please give them.

THANK YOU AGAIN!!!!


B"H
John Steven




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