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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] ps 29:11 BA$.FLOWM vs B:$FLOWM

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  • From: David Kummerow <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] ps 29:11 BA$.FLOWM vs B:$FLOWM
  • Date: Wed, 28 Nov 2007 21:41:54 +1100


Gday Vincent,

Intriguing issues are raised in your post. Some thoughts:

1) As you say, בַשלום would prototypically form a separate prosodic phrase. However, the preceding conjunctive accent unusually includes בַשלום within its scope contra the prototypical prosodic separation of a phrase like בַשלום

2) What, indeed, is the functional motivation for the use of the definite article? Perhaps it's recognitional use of the definite article: "the peace (which we all know comes from God)" or "the peace (which we has come from God)".

3) Interesting suggestion that the accents provide some sort of "quality control" in copying. Certainly in interpretation. In copying is something knew, but it could lend itself to that.

4) My feeling is that commentators skip such details because they are more interested in the "big picture" rather than the details of the Hebrew grammar itself. Compare a "technical" OT commentary with a NT one: often they're worlds apart in their treatment of the actual grammatical details of the text itself.

Regards,
David Kummerow.


dear friends on b-hebrew,

the problem of ps 29:11 and related puzzlers is not addressed (apparently)
in standard works. any insights/references would be appreciated.

*******

re BA$.FLOWM (ps 29:11) for B:$FLOWM

the pointing with the definite article here appears to be a glaring error
for at least two reasons:

(1) BA$.FLOWM is clearly and uncontroversially a "long word", and should
not trigger the accent transformation (conjunctive munach in the place of
revia-mugrash). the accents presuppose B:$FLOWM. (curiously, sharp-eyed
Wickes used this phrase as a parade example of shalsheleth without
noticing the problem: vol I, p. 67.) crucially, it's hard to imagine a
wholesale jigging of the accents, including the introduction of
shalsheleth; but easy to understand a minor difference in pointing the
preposition.

(2) consulting the lisowsky concordance, we see that the inseparable
preposition is usually pointed with shwa: 29/29 with lamed, 34/36 with
beth. (perhaps not coincidentally, the other case is also in the poetic
system: job 15:21?)

on the other hand, there are things to be said for the definite article:

(1) not only is the form attested in our best/earliest mss, it is
protected by MT mas. parva: BHS note confirms "twice" (ie ps 29:11, job
15:21). the form is undoubtedly part of the tradition.

(2) the form is the lectio difficilior, and should be preferred, all
things being equal. (mas. parva is designed to protect the l. diff.)

questions:

(1) the presence/absence of the definite article does not appear as a
problem in standard commentaries. can it be that it makes no difference?

(2) but then, what would the difference be? what would motivate the
definite article in the face of overwhelming stats to the contrary?

(3) does the possibility of a mistake in vowel-pointing slipping in
against the accents say anything about the masorah: theoretically,
practically? what value should we assign to the accents as "quality
control" in copying?

V


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Dr Vincent DeCaen
DeCaen and Associates Research and Communications
135 Bleecker Street, Suite 307
Toronto ON, M4X 1X2
416.927.7667
vince at decaen.ca
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Information provided is compiled from sources believed to be reliable, but
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