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b-hebrew - [b-hebrew] Definite Article 7:14

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  • From: JoeWallack AT aol.com
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Definite Article 7:14
  • Date: Sun, 3 Jun 2007 13:17:18 EDT


""Gesenius' Hebrew Grammar_ treats the definite article here as special

but as an example of a category of usage (section #126 q-r). They say:

"Peculiar to Hebrew is the employment of the article to denote a single

person or thing (primarily one which is as yet unknown, and therefore

not capable of being defined) as being present in the mind under given

circumstances. In such cases in English the indefinite article is mostly

used."

The go on to speak particularly of this article in Isaiah 7:14: "H(LMH,

i.e., the particular maiden, through whom the prophet's announcement

shall be fulfilled; we should say "a maiden."

For other examples of this class of usage they give, among others, Gen

42:23; 1 Kings 19:9; Job 9:31.

Harold Holmyard"


JW:
I previously indicated that Gesenius changed his mind about the usage of the
Hebrew definite article. In an earlier publication he stated that it
sometimes was not indicative of a definite object. In a later publication he
corrected himself and stated that use of the Hebrew definite article is
always
indicative of a definite object. This was an embarrassing mistake for him (my

guess is he was corrected by the same folks who corrected Origen and Jerome).
My
point here is that support for a related position should be based on the
reasons that Gesenius gives (as you have done above) and not just on his
supposed
authority.

What Gesenius is trying to say above in general is a Hebrew usage could be
considered grammatically Definite in Hebrew while being considered
grammatically Indefinite in English. Thus, the use of the indefinite (a) in
English could
be an appropriate translation. My question here is Specifically, how is
7:14 grammatically indefinite in English?:

"i.e., the particular maiden, through whom the prophet's announcement

shall be fulfilled; we should say "a maiden."

It seems to me that to take this as indefinite in English the young woman
must be unknown to Isaiah and not even determined yet at the time of the
prophecy. How could this be justified based on the Hebrew grammar and
context?



Joseph








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