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  • From: Bruce Meltzer <bmeltzer1243 AT yahoo.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Physical or metaphorical offspring in Isaiah 57:4?
  • Date: Mon, 30 Apr 2007 00:29:04 -0700 (PDT)

Hi guys. I had a question on the term "zera sheqer" used in Isaiah 57:4
which I've seen translated commonly as "seed of falsehood" (KJV and others)
and alternative as "offspring of liars" (NIV) which I have been told is the
correct understanding.

This has confused me because zera from what I understand always refers to
something physical and when used in reference to a person such as Israel in
this case, it is the offspring of physical people. Looking at the Hebrew
lexicon, it tells me that sheqer usually means falsehood, false, lie, lies,
and one case in Proverbs, liar. The word for liars however is shakran and is
not used here.

So my question is, how do you derive "liars" from sheqer and how do you
know this is the correct meaning instead of "offspring of falsehood" or
"offspring of lies" which is what the word "sheqer" seems to suggest. Was
Isaiah referring to Israel as people descended from liars or as a
metaphorical seed of falsehood?

I apologize if this seems like a trivial question since my knowledge of
Hebrew is very sparse at best.

Thanks!

- Bruce


---------------------------------
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>From if AT math.bu.edu Mon Apr 30 07:56:00 2007
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From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
Date: Mon, 30 Apr 2007 07:55:57 -0400
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Psalm 149:7 - Leningrad Codex Varient: Bal-Umim
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Pere,

It appears to me that HA$A) of Isaiah 6:10 is 'avert' or 'turn in the
wrong direction'. No (total) blindness there. I wander why the
prophet is not using in this instance the root KHH, 'dim', as used
for the eye in both Genesis 27:1 and Deuteronomy 34:7.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Apr 28, 2007, at 12:22 AM, <pporta AT oham.net> <pporta AT oham.net> wrote:

>> I was wondering of the word )UM.IYM was related to the word "mother".
>>
>> Now you state that L:)OM and I would assume you would also include
>> the
>> words in question )UM.IYM and L:)UM.IYM is most likely not
>> related to
>> )UM.IYM and )UM.FH
>> I was wondering why you think that. To my limited knowledge it would
>> appear that )UM.IYM was the basis for L:)UM.IYM and that in fact
>> L:)UM.IYM should be morphed as L:/)UM.IYM to mean "to people" or "for
>> people"? Or would it be some grammar thing in which the L: is doing
>> something to the word instead of adding "to"?
>
> ______________
>
> Dear BH listers, and mainly John Steven,
>
> Related to the issue you're dealing with some days ago, I found an
> interesting case similar to yours.
>
> These are two identical words that come from different bases and,
> unlike
> your case, mean opposite or, better, nearly opposite things:
>
> 1. In Psalm 39:14 -------- HF$A( ------- look away! ------- base:
> $F(FH,
> gaze (Gen 4:5)
> 2. In Isa 6:10 ------------- HF$A( ------- blind! --------------
> base:
> $F(A(, be blind (not in the Bible)
>
> Perhaps this can help casting some light on your question.
>
> Pere Porta
>
> _______________________________________________
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> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
>



  • [b-hebrew] Physical or metaphorical offspring in Isaiah 57:4?, Bruce Meltzer, 04/30/2007

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