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  • From: Harold Holmyard <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Prophetic Past in Isaiah 9:6(5)
  • Date: Mon, 05 Feb 2007 21:11:47 -0600

Dear Gary,
The Jewish Study Bible says the past tense verbs in Isaiah 9:6
(actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew text) could be an example of a "prophetic
past." That is, the verse is actually a future messianic prophecy and the
verbs are in the past tense because these future events "are as good as
done" (p. 801). Could someone give me a few examples of this Hebrew
"prophetic past" in other passages besides Isaiah 9?

I know we have had extended discussions here about Hebrew tenses
and my intention here is not to open up that whole can of worms once again.
So perhaps I should rephrase the question like this: Could someone on this
list who believes there is such a thing as a "prophetic past" tense in
Hebrew please provide me with an example or two of this phenomenon in the
Hebrew Bible?

HH: It is a very common use of the perfect in Hebrew and receives a good explanation in standard biblical-Hebrew grammars. In Waltke and O'Connor, _Biblical Hebrew Syntax, it is mentioned in sections 29.5 and 30.5.1e. The passages they cite as examples are Numbers 24:17 and Isaiah 8:23-9:1. In Gesenius-Kautszch-Cowley's Hebrew Grammar it is touched on in section 106n, with such examples as Isa 5:13; 9:1ff.; 10:28; 11:9 (after KY), 19:7; Job 5:20; 2 Chron 20:37.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard

Yours,
Harold Holmyard

Gary Hedrick

San Antonio, Texas USA

garyh AT cjfm.org

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  • Re: [b-hebrew] Prophetic Past in Isaiah 9:6(5), Harold Holmyard, 02/05/2007

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