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  • From: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
  • To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Sam 1:28 -- Asked - Lent??
  • Date: Fri, 27 Oct 2006 11:50:18 -0700

Chris:

Look again at the context. Especially verse 11. "Lent" is an incorrect
translation. A more correct yet not too rigidly Hebraic translation,
"I ask that he be for the Lord all his days, he was asked to be for
the Lord." In other words, she was asking Eli to take her son to be
with him in God's service.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 10/27/06, Chris and Nel <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net> wrote:
1 Samuel 1:28 -- "I have lent him to the Lord .... He is lent to the Lord"

The first verb Perfect-Hiphil and the second verb Qal-Participle; I sat and
I read and I thought and I looked up and I thought and I read again! I even
read a complex synopsis of Hiphil and was left entirely in the dark about
this. It beats me how we arrive at Lent from Asked/begged. What more can I
say? The REAL issue for me is why not 'NaTaN'. A simple 'give' and be done
with it.

And besides all this how can Gesenius and others say 'Lent'. This would
imply that Hannah, at some stage, expects him back, but this was NOT the vow
she prayed.

Am I not learning things correctly or what? I have just began an
intermediate Hebrew book by Ehud Ben Zvi and he does not even mention this
anomaly.

Regards
Chris.




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