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  • From: "Yonah Mishael" <yonahmishael AT gmail.com>
  • To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Daniel 11:22
  • Date: Wed, 30 Aug 2006 23:20:04 -0500

Yigal,

In fact, many countermissionary sites take issue with the Christian
understanding of Daniel as a prophet, emphasizing that Daniel is
included in the Ketuvim for good reason: because Daniel himself was
not a prophet. I would move this topic, considering the present
question, to include 12:1-2, which cannot but be taken prophetically.

ובעת ההיא יעמד מיכאל השר הגדול העמד על־בני עמך והיתה עת צרה אשר
לא־נהיתה מהיות גוי עד העת ההיא ובעת ההיא ימלט עמך כל־הנמצא כתוב בספר
ורבים מישני אדמת־עפר יקיצו אלה לחיי עולם ואלה לחרפות לדראון עולם
"And at that time, Micha'el will stand up, the great minister who
stands over the sons of your people. And there will be a time of
trouble which has not been since being a nation until that time. And
at that time, your people will be delivered, all who are found written
in the book, and many of those who sleep in the dusty ground will
arise: these to eternal life, and these to shame and eternal
disgrace." (Daniel 12:1-2)

I do not think that I've seen this understood in any aspect other than
the resurrection at the time of Mashiach. If Daniel does make
prophecies about the future of the world, why is he not included in
the Nevi'im? I guess this is not the determining factor, since 1 and 2
Divrei haYamim (Chronicles) contain the same basic information as the
Samuel/Kings records, yet they are not in the Nevi'im while the latter
are. Surely, exclusion of Daniel from Nevi'im does not mean that he
was not a prophet. Why do we then make it a point in our argumentation
that Daniel was not a prophet? He could not be less of a prophet than
Joshua, who did not deliver oracles about the future. Maybe Daniel was
a "dreamer" (חולם) rather than a "seer" (חוזה) or "prophet" (נביא).

It's an interesting question for sure.

ܫܠܡܐ - שלמא
Yonah

On 8/29/06, Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il> wrote:
And now a serious question: if "the rabbis" (of the "great assembly")
considered Daniel to be prophetic, why was it not included in the Nevi'im
(as it is in the Christian canon - that is, together with the "prophetic
books")?

Yigal


--
Yonah Mishael ben Avraham
Joplin, MO
yonahmishael AT gmail.com



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