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  • From: kgraham0938 AT comcast.net
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] accent mark question Ps 45:7 and Dagesh in Isaiah 8:11
  • Date: Mon, 31 Oct 2005 15:03:38 +0000

My question is two fold in Psalm 45:7 K:S:`A:KA E:LOHIYM

the tipha under the alef of ' E:LOHIYM does that represent a pause?

So is it, "your throne, O God is forever and ever?"

"Or can one get away with Your throne is God, forever and ever?"

Second question is YISS:R"NIY in Isaiah 8:11, why is there a dagesh in the
samech? And if this thing is imperfect why isn't there a dagesh in the yod?
Looks to me like the yod there is part of the root, not part of a vav
conversive. Looks like a Piel but I guess it is not.



--
Kelton Graham
KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net
>From kwrandolph AT email.com Mon Oct 31 10:29:50 2005
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From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
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Date: Mon, 31 Oct 2005 10:29:46 -0500
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Lev 21:18 - Passive Participle
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Peter:

----- Original Message -----
From: "Peter Kirk" <peter AT qaya.org>
>=20
> On 30/10/2005 01:27, Karl Randolph wrote:
>=20
> > Peter:
> >
> > This brings up the question which trumps what? Does internal=20
> > evidence trump cognate languages, or the other way around?
> >
> > If within Biblical Hebrew there is only one meaning evidenced for=20
> > a lexeme, ...
> >
>=20
> There is no easy answer to your question. But there is an easy=20
> answer to the question which is in fact relevant here: Does absence=20
> of internal evidence trump evidence from cognate languages, or the=20
> other way around? I don't see any way in which absence of evidence=20
> can trump evidence!
>=20
There are times when absence of evidence is a lack, i.e.=20
that a certain phenomenon existed but that we have yet to=20
find evidence for it, and other times when it is evidence of=20
lack, i.e. that the looked for phenomenon was never there=20
in the first place.=20

This is one of the cases IMO of the latter.

> ...
>=20
> > (Further, the two Arabic roots look as if they could have come=20
> > originally from one root that first became dialectic differences,=20
> > that later became phonemic.)
> >
> >
>=20
> All I can say is that there is no evidence that such processes have=20
> ever happened in the Semitic languages, whose root structure is=20
> extremely stable over millennia.
>=20
I had previously pointed to evidence that such processes=20
possibly happened: where it has happened in other=20
languages (from historical records), mechanisms of how it=20
happened in those languages, and the clues that change=20
left as it occurred. Then I looked at patterns within Semitic=20
language family and see the same clues of change. This=20
is where we disagree, and the lack of evidence (in the first=20
sense above) prevents resolution of that disagreement.

> > The only way to resolve this disagreement is to find documents=20
> > that show a development of Hebrew indicating that it originally=20
> > had the extra sounds. So far there has been no sign of those=20
> > documents. So we'll have to agree to disagree.
> >
> >
> >
> No, Karl, I will not agree to disagree, although I will not pursue=20
> a pointless discussion for long. There is ample evidence available,=20
> from cognate languages and from transliterations, for this=20
> development of Hebrew, even though it is not in actual Hebrew=20
> documents because the Hebrew alphabet never made this particular=20
> distinction.
>=20
> -- Peter Kirk
> peter AT qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/

What I have repeatedly claimed is that lack of evidence in=20
Biblical Hebrew should often be understood in the second=20
sense above, whereas almost universally it is understood=20
in the first sense. This is my claim concerning the number=20
of phonemes is Biblical Hebrew. This forms the one=20
element of many of my disagreements with BDB and=20
other modern lexicographers.

In this particular example, I agree with Jack that there is=20
only one meaning for XRM evidenced in Biblical Hebrew.=20
This forms a lack of evidence in the second sense above=20
for multiple roots. Does this lack of evidence trump the=20
evidence from Arabic? I say "Yes."

(Incidentally, I think there is a possible resolution between=20
his and my understandings of the meaning. More later.)

I think a further discussion on XRM is pointless as long as=20
we do not agree on the nature of "lack of evidence", and=20
like you, I do not wish to drag it out where resolution will=20
most likely not occur. It would not be fair to others on this=20
mailing list.

Karl W. Randolph.

--=20
___________________________________________________
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