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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] The mystery of vav-consequtive

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  • From: "Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>
  • To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] The mystery of vav-consequtive
  • Date: Sun, 22 May 2005 18:15:40 -0400

Can anyone give me 5 examples from the Pentateuch where the vav-consecutive
is clearly NOT a tense reversal?

I understand that there is much discussion on this in the archives, but the
archives do not seem to be searchable.

thanks,
-Steve Miller
Detroit

On Friday 29 April 2005 00:00, Vadim Cherny wrote:
> Would anyone explain me, what's wrong with the most simple and evident
> explanation:
>
> waw usually serves as tense reversal device, but
> sometimes it is simply a consequtive?
>
> It is this ambiguity that likely led to developing a new FT form, derived
> from imperative mode.

Dave Washburn responded:
>What's wrong with it is, we can show more counter-examples than we can
>examples. IOW, it fails to explain even a preponderance of the evidence.






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