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  • From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 64:4
  • Date: Tue, 31 Aug 2004 13:37:53 -0500

Dear Sujata,

I did mean Is 64:4 in the English Bible and my
question particularly is about the phrase "O God". In
KJV I have "O God" in NKJV and others I have "A God",
in JPS (Is 64:3) "A God" and in the Qumran scroll
translation "O God". So I am wondering what is the
exact translation from Hebrew, is it "a God" or "O
God".

HH: Although the KJV has "O God," it is interesting that the NKJV, which tried to preserve all it could of the KJV, has, as you say:

4 For since the beginning of the world Men have not heard nor perceived by the ear, Nor has the eye seen any God besides You, Who acts for the one who waits for Him.

HH: This is also the way that the NRSV, NIV, NLT, NASB. Amplified, HCSB, ESV, and CEV translated the verse. Perhaps the KJV was motivated by a desire to conform the translation to Paul's wording in 1 Cor 2:9:

1Cor. 2:9 But as it is written, Eye hath not seen, nor ear heard, neither have entered into the heart of man, the things which God hath prepared for them that love him.

HH: Paul's words might not be a citation of Isa 64:4, but if they are, they could be a paraphrase, even with the introductory "but as it is written." I think the KJV translation is probably incorrect. The word "God" is in the natural place for a verb object to stand. Also the KJV has to supply the word "what," since there is nothing in Hebrew corresponding to it. One would expect a word like )$R ("what") in Hebrew if KJV were on the right track. Also the grammatical agreement is odd in the KJV:

KJV: Is. 64:4 For since the beginning of the world men have not heard, nor perceived by the ear, neither hath the eye seen, O God, beside thee, what he hath prepared for him that waiteth for him.

HH: The KJV has Isaiah addressing God in the second person to speak about Him in the third person. And one may even ask what the function of "beside thee" is in the KJV. If no one has seen what He hath prepared, and Isaiah tells this to God, what does "beside thee" mean? However, if no one has seen a God, then "beside thee" fits beautifully.

HH: One could say that there is no Hebrew word in Isa 64:4 corresponding to "who" either, but the pronoun implied in the verbal form Y(&H ("he prepared") can provide an understood "who."

Yours,
Harold Holmyard
From hholmyard AT ont.com Tue Aug 31 14:45:14 2004
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Date: Tue, 31 Aug 2004 13:40:37 -0500
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Re: Species of Genitive (James D. Price)
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Dear Dave,

The problem is that Hebrew doesn't appear to have behaved the same way English
does. Most adjectival constructions in BH are actually nouns used in an
adjectival way. In order to build a linguistic model of BH with explanatory
adequacy, we have to account for that.

HH: I have always assumed that the Hebrew construct is a bit like Greek's use of the genitive. Both languages had adjectival forms, but they often preferred to give modification to nouns by other nouns

Yours,
Harold Holmyard




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