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b-hebrew - Re: Language code switching in Daniel/Syriakh

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  • From: "Martin Arhelger" <arhelger AT gmx.de>
  • To: "Randall Buth" <ButhFam AT compuserve.com>, "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Cc: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Language code switching in Daniel/Syriakh
  • Date: Tue, 1 Jan 2002 13:02:47 +0100



> Every good dictionary will tell you that SYRIAKH
> is the word for Aramaic in Greek and so used,
> with by-forms, wherever ... LXX, Josephus,
> Aristeas, etc.

Yes, but what does this prove about the meaning of "hebrais"? When I say
that the English word "vehicle" may comprise a car or a lorry this is not
disproved by the fact that there is the special English word "lorry".

When Paul told abot the speech from heaven (according to Acts 26) he wanted
to make clear that this man in heaven used the same language which Jesus
used, when he was on earth (because Paul wanted to say that this Jesus
raised from the dead and went to heaven, see the context in Acts 26).

Some original forms of what Jesus said (according to the gospels):
- "barjona", Mat 16:17
- "boanerges", Mark 3:17
- "talita koum(i)", Mark 5:41
- "ephata", Mark 7:34
- "abba", Mark 14:36
- "eloi, eloi lema sabachtani", Mark 15:34
- "kephas", John 1:42.

Most of these forms are Aramaic (or near to Aramaic) but not Hebrew.

Martin Arhelger







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