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  • From: "Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>
  • To: <peterg45 AT excite.com>
  • Cc: "Hebrew List" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Zechariah 1.16
  • Date: Mon, 9 Apr 2001 08:44:24 -0400


I would argue that you may be misrepresenting Ezekiel. He never "claimed
that it never returned." The glory of YHWH returns in Ezek. 43, and there is
no chronology attached to the return. The temple appears to be symbolic so
the whole scenario can be interpreted in various ways.
Lee R. Martin


----- Original Message -----
From: <peterg45 AT excite.com>
To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Monday, April 02, 2001 8:22 PM
Subject: Zechariah 1.16


> Hi
> I friend and I are having a discussion concerning the "glory of the
Lord"
> departing from the Temple in Jerusalem, as related by Ezekiel. He claims
> that it never returned. However, I claim that Zechariah proclaims to the
> returned exiles that God has returned--Zechariah 1.16. The RSV translates:
> "I have returned" (the verb form is "shabti" (qal perf.). The NIV
translates
> it as: "I will return." The NKJV translates it: "I am returning.".
Gesenius
> Grammar is about as specific as BilClinton talking about his relationship
> with Monica.
> Does anyone out there have a suggestion on how this particular qal
> perfect is to be translated, and why?
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
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