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  • From: peter_kirk AT sil.org
  • To: <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Cc: <ButhFam AT compuserve.com>
  • Subject: Re[2]: Autographs... and "Iron Age Amorite"
  • Date: Thu, 30 Dec 1999 17:48:42 -0500





______________________________ Reply Separator
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Subject: Re: Autographs, MSS and REAL Historiography Re: Methods in
Author: <npl AT teol.ku.dk> at Internet
Date: 30/12/1999 09:48

<snip>

[Niels Peter Lemche]
Again you are telescoping the issues. 1-200 years are as a matter of
fact a very long period, and the biblical Hebrew is not the late Palestinian
Amorite of the Iron Age. As I write this I am waiting for the new grammer of
the inscriptions, I saw at the SBL stand in Boston in November, but although
morphology seems close, syntax is not--lack of xconsecutive forms--so
biblical Hebrew is not the language of the Iron Age as maintained by many
scholars who should know. And I still have to wait for some to stand up
against Knauf's claim that biblical Hebrew--which is only attested in the HB
and in literature quoting from the HB--is an artificial language.

PK: That new grammar would be interesting. Who is the author? So, what
do we have? Morphology is close. Is the syntax really that different?
- Randall Buth seems to disagree, and recently made especial note of
the WAYYIQTOL forms in the Moabite inscription which you are now
claiming to be lacking. Is Randall one of the scholars you are
disagreeing with here?

PK: As for Knauf's claim, does he answer the problem of how writers in
the 3rd century BCE (say) were able artificially use the morphology of
600 years earlier, if this was recorded only on a few stones which
were probably already lost? Also, were they clever enough to
deliberately invent a seperate intermediate language "Late Biblical
Hebrew") which they used mainly in materials presented as post-exilic?
Or did all of this happen by chance?

<snip>

Peter Kirk




  • Re[2]: Autographs... and "Iron Age Amorite", peter_kirk, 12/30/1999

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