[b-hebrew] Micah 4:8 and 5:1
David Kummerow
farmerjoeblo at hotmail.com
Sat Sep 13 17:46:20 EDT 2008
>
> But when a person indicates the use of a participle in Biblical Hebrew as
> "present tense", does that not already indicate confusion that should be
> clarified?
>
>
> Yours,
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
To me, of course not, as some Hebrew grammarians argue for the same. It
is the old debate about the grammaticalization of aspect and tense in
the BH verbal system. Kenneth could just as well challenge your own
seemingly aspect-only view.
Regards,
David Kummerow.
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