[b-hebrew] Re: The meaning of "the blood of Jezreel" in Hosea 1:4
leonardj at live.com
Wed Aug 6 02:14:00 EDT 2008
My thanks to the three who responded to my post headed as above.
Unfortunately, however, the point taken up in all three responses concerns a fact I mentioned only *incidentally* in my post as part of background information: that understanding "the blood of Jezreel" as a reference to Jehu's massacre at Jezreel as recorded in 2 Kings 9 results in a contradiction (or at least an apparent contradiction) between 2 Kings 10:30 and Hosea 1:4. The resolution or otherwise of this problem was not the purpose of my post, which I should think is more appropriate for a general Bible discussion forum than B-Hebrew--rather the purpose was to get the list members to evaluate my "linguistic" argument for taking "the blood of Jezreel" as a possessive genitive. Let me rephrase my question this way: If I said that the usage of the expression "the blood of Jezreel" in the Hebrew OT requires or at least strongly supports understanding "Jezreel" in "the blood of Jezreel" as a possessive genitive--I have given details of the basis for this view in the earlier post--how would a Hebrew scholar respond to that? Would he agree that the translation of this phrase as "the massacre at Jezreel," or "the blood shed at Jezreel," etc. is influenced more by the coincidence that Jehu happened to massacre some members of the house of Ahab in a town called Jezreel than by a consideration of how the phrase "the blood of X" is used in the Hebrew OT (and extra-biblical Hebrew literature)?
In a future post I will mention a few exegetical reasons why I think "the massacre at Jezreel" as a translation/interpretation of "the blood of Jezreel" does not work in Hosea 1:4-5, provided there is sufficient interest in this subject and the moderator will not object to that.
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